- The 'winners' who lost their opening game miserably against us, went on to win the remaining games against all odds. Consider the opposition they beat en route to the finals: South Arica, Sri Lanka (who beat us comfortably), England (in the semifinals, and England were pre-tournament favourites to win in home conditions), and India (in the finals, virtually decimating us).
- The other favourites, India were going great guns...until the finals. Apart from the match against Sri Lanka, they had one bad day, and it happened to be the finals.
- In the finals, why did India win the toss and take bowling first, when conventional logic seemed to favour batting first..?
- The Indian bowlers had had a great tournament up until the finals...they had troubled batsmen of all teams they played against and had given away very few wides, and hardly any no-balls.
- Bumrah had bowled only one inconsequential no-ball before the finals. But in the finals...he bowled that dreadful no-ball which as we know cost us the match...
- How is it possible that all our extraordinary, gifted, in-form batting stalwarts failed to fire in the same match en masse? Why did the top and middle order collapse like nine pins? Were the conditions in the second innings so miserable for batting and bowling-friendly?
- By the way the highest successful run-chase in the same venue is 322, which is not far away from the 'winners' total. If there was any batting lineup in the world that could have chased successfully, it was ours.
Did I say that they are capable of anything..?
(Note: If not the ICC, at the very least the BCCI should thoroughly investigate the debacle...)
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